Q. 1: Test Implementation and execution has which of the following major tasks?
i. Developing and prioritizing test cases, creating test data, writing test procedures and optionally preparing the test harnesses and writing automated test scripts.
ii. Creating the test suite from the test cases for efficient test execution. iii. Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly.
iv. Determining the exit criteria.
A. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
B. i,,iv are true and ii is false
C. i,ii are true and iii,iv are false
D. ii,iii,iv are true and i is false
Q. 2: One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts numeric values in the range of 18 to 25. Identify the invalid Equivalence class
A. 17
B. 19
C. 24
D. 21
Q. 3: Exhaustive Testing is
A. Is impractical but possible
B. Is practically possible
C. Is impractical and impossible
D. Is always possible
Q. 4: Hand over of Testware is a part of which Phase
A. Test Analysis and Design
B. Test Planning and control
C. Test Closure Activities
D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
Q. 5: Which one is not comes under international standard
A. IEC
B. IEEE
C. ISO
D. All of the above
Q. 6: In which phase static tests are used
A. Requirements
B. Design
C. Coding
D. All of the above
Q. 7: What’s the disadvantage of Black Box Testing
A. Chances of having repetition of tests that are already done by programmer.
B. The test inputs needs to be from large sample space.
C. It is difficult to identify all possible inputs in limited testing time. So writing test cases is
slow and difficult
D. All above
Q. 8: Static analysis tools are typically used by
A. Testers
B. Developers
C. Testers & Developers
D. None
Q. 9: Majority of system errors occur in the phase
A. Requirements Phase.
B. Analysis and Design Phase
C. Development Phase
D. Testing Phase
Q. 10: The specification which describes steps required to operate the system and exercise test cases in order to implement the associated test design
A. Test Case Specification
B. Test Design Specification
C. Test Procedure Specification
D. None
Q. 11: How much percentage of the life cycle costs of a software are spent on maintenance.
A. 10%
B. 30%
C. 50%
D. 70%
Q. 12: When a defect is detected and fixed then the software should be retested to confirm that the original defect has been successfully removed. This is called
A. Regression testing
B. Maintenance testing
C. Confirmation testing
D. None of the above
Q. 13: Equivalence testing divides the input domain into classes of data from which test cases can be derived to reduce the total number of test cases that must be developed.
A. True
B. False
Q. 14: When to stop Testing?
A. Stop when scheduled time for testing expires
B. Stop if 75% of the pre-defined number of errors is detected.
C. Stop when all the test cases execute with detecting few errors.
D. None above
Q. 15: With thorough testing it is possible to remove all defects from a program prior to delivery to the customer.
A. True
B. False
Q. 16: Structure is unknown for which type of development project
A. Traditional system development
B. Iterative development
C. System maintenance
D. Purchased/contracted software
Q. 17: indicates how important it is to fix the bug and when it should be fixed
A. Severity
B. Priority
C. All of the above
D. None of the above
Q. 18: The person who leads the review of the document(s), planning the review, running the meeting and follow-up after the meeting
A. Reviewer
B. Author
C. Moderator
D. Auditor
Q. 19: Performs sufficient testing to evaluate every possible path and condition in the application system. The only test method that guarantees the proper functioning of the application system is called as
A. Regression Testing
B. Exhaustive Testing
C. Basic Path Testing
D. Branch Testing
Q. 20: Quality Assurance is the process by which product quality is compared with the application standards and the action taken when nonconformance is detected.
A. True
B. False
Q. 21: A formal assessment of a work product conducted by one or more qualified independent reviewer to detect defects.
A. Inspection.
B. Walkthrough.
C. Review
D. Non-Conformance
Q. 22: Test Case are grouped into Manageable (and scheduled) units are called as
A. Test Harness
B. Test Suite
C. Test Cycle
D. Test Driver
Q. 23: Configuration and compatibility testing are typically good choices for outsourcing
A. True
B. False
Q. 24: Beta testing is performed at developing organization’s site where as Alpha testing is performed by people at their own locations.
A. True
B. False
Q. 25: What type of tools to be used for Regression Testing
A. Performance
B. Record/Playback
C. A. & B
D. None
Q. 26: System Integration testing should be done after
A. Integration testing
B. System testing
C. Unit testing
D. Component integration testing
Q. 27: During this event the entire system is tested to verify that all functional information structural and quality requirements have been met. A predetermined combination of tests is designed that when executed successfully satisfy management that the system meets specifications
A. Validation Testing
B. Integration Testing
C. User Acceptance Testing
D. System Testing
Q. 28: What is the normal order of activities in which software testing is organized?
A. Unit, integration, system, validation
B. System, integration, unit, validation
C. Unit, integration, validation, system
D. None of the above
Q. 29: The goal of a software tester is to find bugs, find them as early as possible and make sure they get fixed.
A. True
B. False
Q. 30: Beta testing is performed at developing organization’s site where as Alpha testing is performed by people at their own locations.
A. Test Summary report
B. Test Log
C. Test Incident Report
D. Test Script
Q. 31: Testing with out a real plan and test cases is called —
A. Gorilla testing
B. Monkey testing
C. Adhoc testing
D. All of the above
Q. 32: Which rule should not be followed for reviews
A. Defects and issues are identified and corrected
B. The product is reviewed not the producer
C. All members of the reviewing team are responsible for the result of the review
D. Each review has a clear predefined objective
Q. 33: Verification can be termed as ‘Are we building the product right?”
A. True
B. False
Q. 34: Which testing is used to verify that the system can perform properly when internal program or system limitations have been exceeded
A. Stress Testing
B. Load Testing
C. Performance Testing
D. Volume testing
Q. 35: Defects are recorded into three major purposes. They are:
1.To correct the defect
2.To report status of the application
3.To improve the software development process
A. True
B. False
Q. 36: Drivers are tools used to control and operate tge software being testeD.
A. True
B. False
Q. 37: Typical defects discovered by static analysis includes
A. Programming standard violations
B. Referring a variable with an undefined value
C. Security vulnerabilities
D. All Above
Q. 38: EULA stands for
A. End Usability License Agreement
B. End User License Agreement
C. End User License Arrangement
D. End User License Attachment
Q. 39: is a very early build intended for limited distribution to a few key customers and to marketing for demonstration purposes.
A. Alpha release
B. Beta release
C. Test release document
D. Build
Q. 40: CAST stands for
A. Computer Aided Software Testing
B. Computer Aided Software Tools
C. Computer Analysis Software Techniques
D. None